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Posted in Mortgage
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Question By
terry15601

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My exwife received the mortgage payments since 2004, from me, and fails to make payments,
The court ignores my pleas for help, and atty won't help either. Mortgage company tells me they won't remove me as responsible until mortgage is made current, even though the court has turn ownership to my ex, and this continues to destroy my credit score. Since I feel I made all payments to my wife, and she failed to pay this mortgage, why am I being held for the $60,000 to make bill current?

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You state you feel you made payments to your wife. Do you have proof in the form of checks or money orders? Did you put a notation on the checks stating what the money was for? Are all the payments for the same amount every month? Were/are you paying alimony and/or child support and was that money lumped in with the monies? 

In hindsight, you should have paid monies directly to the mortgage company. You might want to speak to a real estate attorney.

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