Member since: August 2009
Total Contributions: 1
I don't understand the statement that people with 0% utilization could fall into two categories, the first is one without a credit card. The reports show open credit cards, timely payments etc. Seems that the 'credit worthiness' can be determined. So why does a 0% utilization result in a lower score? Almost seems to suggest credit card holders should have a balance, even encouraged to have a balance so credit card companies can continue to earn a profit on transaction fees?
Comment posted 2 years ago
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